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Thursday, July 18, 2024

Why is this jurisdictional?

Hunter Biden moved to dismiss his indictment for lack of jurisdiction arguing that special prosecutor David Weiss' appointment is constitutionally invalid under the Appointments and Appropriations clauses, in light of Thomas' Trump concurrence and Judge Cannon's decision to dismiss the documents case.

I leave to others the constitutional merits. My question: Why is this a jurisdictional defect? The motion describes this as an indictment "brought by an unauthorized prosecutor" and concludes that this means the court lacks jurisdiction, citing Trump and a 1991 9th Circuit case treating a challenge to a special AUSA's authority as going to the court's jurisdiction. But the cited portion of Trump does not use the word jurisdiction and the 9th Circuit case came a decade before the Court righted the ship on the jurisdictional label.

I focus on civil cases and perhaps criminal cases are different. But I think this comes back to conflating types of jurisdiction. The jurisdiction (i.e., "authority" or "authorization") problem is one of executive or prosecutorial authority--the official pursuing the prosecution lacks the constitutional authority to pursue the case. But the absence of executive jurisdiction to act should not strip the court of adjudicative jurisdiction, just as the absence of legislative jurisdiction to enact the law being enforced does not strip the court of adjudicative jurisdiction. Both require the court to exercise its power and grant judgment for the defendant on the merits.

Is there something different about criminal law and the prosecutorial power that changes this analysis?

Posted by Howard Wasserman on July 18, 2024 at 06:46 PM in Constitutional thoughts, Howard Wasserman, Law and Politics | Permalink

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