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Wednesday, April 19, 2006
Religious Tests in the Mirror
Did the Administration do anything wrong in invoking Harriet Miers' faith in promoting her nomination to the Supreme Court? Would the members of the Senate have done anything wrong if they had questioned, or opposed, John Roberts based on his religious faith? The answer to these questions has much to do with the Religious Test Clause of the Constitution, which states that no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States. During these nomination battles, some observers argued that the Religious Test Clause would forbid the Senators from questioning Roberts on his faith, on his religiously derived beliefs, or on the relationship between his faith and his role as a Justice. Similarly, many observers suggested the President's apparent efforts to sell nominee Miers on the basis of her faith crossed the line marked by the Religious Test Clause. Were these observers right?
In my paper, Religious Tests in the Mirror: The Constitutional Law and Constitutional Etiquette of Religion in Judicial Nominations, I argue that they were wrong. Nothing in the Religious Test Clause ultimately forbids any of the actions we saw in the wake of the Roberts and Miers nominations -- nor did it forbid the kinds of questions we saw raised in the wake of the nomination of William Pryor to the Eleventh Circuit. Indeed, it would not forbid the President from expressly selecting a nominee on the basis of that person's faith, or a Senator from expressly opposing a nominee on the same basis. But just because the Religious Test Clause does not operate in this area, that does not mean we cannot hold a productive conversation about the "constitutional etiquette" of such behavior; we can still try to craft guidelines that help us to evaulate how people should talk about religion in the context of judicial nominations -- and, not incidentally, how people should talk about religion in the public sphere more generally.
Comments are welcome. Honestly. I'm always eager to find new readers, and the paper is early enough in the pipeline that I can still benefit from reactions and suggestions. For those with time on their hands, the abstract is after the jump -- or you can just read the paper....
The Religious Test Clause of the United States Constitution states that “no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States.” Although it is the only place in the main text of the Constitution that mentions religion, it has been habitually ignored – until now. In the past several years, a spate of lower federal court nominations and two Supreme Court nominations – the successful nomination of Chief Justice John Roberts and the abortive nomination of Harriet Miers – have occasioned public debate over whether the Religious Test Clause forbids Presidents and/or Senators from supporting, opposing, or even questioning nominees on the basis of religion. More broadly, these events have been the occasion for discussions about whether and how religion may be raised in the public debate surrounding judicial nominees. Because the Roberts and Miers nominations present neat mirror images of each other, with religion used as a disqualification in one nomination and a qualification in the other, it is an opportune moment to assess what the Religious Test Clause has to say about these cases, and about the use of religion in the federal judicial nomination process more generally.
This article, a contribution to a Symposium on “Religion, Division, and the Constitution,” is the first to fully examine these questions. After discussing the invocation of the Religious Test Clause in the recent nomination controversies, it looks carefully at the text and history of the Religious Test Clause. It argues that the Religious Test Clause precludes Congress or the President from imposing a formal test oath on would-be federal office-holders that would require them to avow or disavow, under oath, allegiance to a particular faith or set of religious doctrines. And that is all it does. A President may select nominees on the basis of their faith if he chooses; a Senator may question a nominee on his or her faith or religiously derived beliefs, or support or oppose a nominee on that basis. Thus, those public officials, public figures, and commentators who argued during the recent nomination process that the Religious Test Clause barred certain actions or inquiries were wrong.
I argue that this conclusion is not only descriptively accurate; it is also normatively sound. There are many plausible reasons why a President or Senator might validly inquire into the faith, or religiously derived beliefs, of a nominee. To silence such inquiries because of the dangers of intermixing religion and politics ultimately disserves the broader principle that religion ought to be a fully welcome part of discussion in the public sphere. In addition, the broad reading of the Religious Test Clause, by constitutionalizing an area of politics, unduly limits the scope of popular responsibility for the political process. The best remedy for abuses of religion in the judicial nomination process lies in the realm of ordinary politics, and not in the Constitution.
Although the Constitution thus provides few if any barriers to the use and abuse of religion and religious rhetoric in the federal judicial nomination process, nothing prevents us from attempting to craft evaluative criteria that might lead to more fruitful uses of religion in public debate, and to guide our understanding of how well or poorly religion has been used in the public debate surrounding judicial nominations. The article thus offers several principles of “constitutional etiquette” that might guide our understanding of the sound use of religion in this context, and measures the recent nomination controversies against these standards. It concludes that even with these criteria in place, the invocation of religion in judicial nominations, as elsewhere, may lead to more rather than less division in our national politics. But the price is well worth paying, if our public discussions become richer and deeper as a result.
Posted by Paul Horwitz on April 19, 2006 at 08:28 PM in Constitutional thoughts | Permalink
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Comments
Congrats Paul! Looks very interesting.
Posted by: Dan Markel | Apr 19, 2006 9:09:03 PM
Paul,
It looks interesting. With the end of term upon us, I have no time right now to read the paper, alas. But I can't help worrying that you let original intent and text control the outcome too easily. To be sure, you seem also to have an argument that it is normatively attractive to embrace a "strict" reading of the Religious Test Clause. Yet I tend to think the separation of Church and State (if you will allow such a crude rendering) is a radically underenforced constitutional norm: we have god in the pledge of allegiance; we have god on our money; we have god in our courtrooms; we have god blessing our union during innumerable public opportunities; etc. Why not, then, opt for a more godless nomination process? Perhaps such an underenforced consitutional norm cannot be judicially enforced. But I wonder whether it really is all that normatively attractive to encourage our other branches who swear (to god?) to uphold our Constitution to continute to chip away at the wall of separation.
Just a thought -- one I'm sure your paper addresses.
Ethan
Posted by: Ethan Leib | Apr 19, 2006 9:31:46 PM
Thanks, both of you. Ethan, let me offer some responses to your interesting comments. It seems to me you actually raise a number of different and worthwhile issues:
1) Methodology. I am not a hard-line originalist, but think much can be learned from history -- and as much from the text. In this context it's especially important to draw on these sources because one of the goals of the paper is to clear away what I think is an incorrect argument about the scope of the Test Clause that's been raised by many influential public officials, public figures, and commentators, and perhaps a few law professors; thus, it's necessary to engage and correct the record that they draw on.
2) Normativity. As I say, I don't think original public meaning absolutely determines a final reading of a constitutional provision -- often for good reasons, including good methodological ones, and sometimes because that ship has sailed. So, as you note, it's true that I think the narrow reading is also a good reading. Happy to agree to disagree on this one, but...
3) Parsing Out the "Separation of Church and State." . . . it seems to me as if you may conflate a few different kinds of phenomena when you suggest our norms of separationism are underenforced. I don't mind the "crude rendering" at all, but I think there is at least one key distinction that needs to be made that might be elided in your discussion. It's one thing to focus on *formal* public invocations of religion -- those formalized invocations in which the government speaks religiously in the government's official voice. I am more leery of such formal acts than I *suspect* (perhaps wrongly) at least one of our co-bloggers is, and strictly speaking I think there was a decent logic to the Ninth Circuit's Newdow opinion. Broadly speaking, I am much more separationist in "government voice" cases than I am in, say, government aid cases. But more so than you, I am willing to except a certain historical easement over the Establishment Clause for ceremonial deism, although there are a number of reasons why both religionists and non-religionists ought to be wary of ceremonial deism arguments.
But I think there is an important distinction between those sorts of things and instances of citizens -- including those who temporarily occupy positions of leadership -- invoking religion in their own voice and to make their own arguments, as opposed to doing so as an agent of the state. It's the difference between the President saying God bless America at the end of a speech, which I find unobjectionable, and a bailiff reading the sheet of paper she's obliged to read every day saying "God bless this honorable court" (although, as I suggested above, this is an "easement" case for me).
Normatively speaking, I would rather that *this* category of speech fully welcome religion into the terms of public debate, with the caveat that people are of course welcome to engage such speech critically. I think that allowing religion into these kinds of aspects of the public square are a very different matter from allowing government formally to advance religion (a label that I think applies more to ceremonial deism, school prayer, and similar cases than I think it does to financial aid cases) is redemptive of a fully inclusive (if contentious) politics, and has little to do with the proper meaning of separation of church and state. Thus, saying that the nomination process need not (not *must* not) be godless does not chip away at the wall of separation, because the "wall" is built for other purposes, not this one.
I'm not sure whether my paper addresses all these points directly. I deliberately leave the Establishment Clause largely to one side. But the flavor of these views is certainly there, and I was happy to fill it in a little more here. Thanks for the question.
Cheers, Paul
Posted by: Paul Horwitz | Apr 20, 2006 11:52:20 AM
Let me clean up a muddied paragraph from my comment above:
Normatively speaking, I would rather that *this* category of speech -- namely, speech by citizens in their own name -- fully welcome religion into the terms of public debate, with the caveat that people are of course welcome to engage such speech critically. I think that allowing religion into the public square is a very different matter from allowing government formally to advance religion (a label that I think applies more to ceremonial deism, school prayer, and similar cases than I think it does to financial aid cases). To welcome religious speech in this sphere is redemptive of a fully inclusive (if contentious) politics, and has little to do with the proper meaning of separation of church and state. Thus, saying that the nomination process need not (not *must* not) be godless does not chip away at the wall of separation, because the "wall" is built for other purposes, not this one.
Posted by: Paul Horwitz | Apr 20, 2006 11:58:25 AM
One quick (and maybe obvious) comment is that the reason that Miers was sold in terms of religion was because there was nothing else to sell, and most of the complaints about her being sold on those terms had nothing to do with the fact that the President offered her faith as an evaluative criterion, it was that there were no other criteria to offer. If the President had talked about Alito's faith, I don't think it would have been a big deal for anyone, because with Alito, there were ample other evaluative criteria: we could look to his record on the bench. Miers had no record, which meant that faith - hers in God and Bush's in her - was all we had to go on. It wasn't enough.
Posted by: Simon | Apr 20, 2006 2:00:48 PM
What about the Free Exercise Clause? In this context, the Religious Test Clause has largely been subsumed by the Free Exercise Clause (as in McDaniel v. Paty). Are you implying that the FEC shouldn't recognize this sort of discrimination?
Posted by: Christopher Lund | Apr 20, 2006 3:59:28 PM
Professor-
FYI and FWIW:
http://www.confirmthem.com/?p=2313
Posted by: Feddie | Apr 20, 2006 5:40:21 PM
Christopher: I draw no conclusions about the Free Exercise Clause. More broadly, I say that whatever the Constitution says about the kinds of religious invocations I'm talking about in the paper (strictly federal judicial nominations) must come from the FEC or the EC, not the RTC -- although I doubt either would prohibit the particular kinds of actions I talk about in the paper. I draw no conclusions about the fitness of McDaniel (or Torcasco) as Religion Clause cases.
Feddie: To explain to folks who don't link through, Feddie links to Joseph Story's description of the Religious Test Clause. I cite Story in the paper, although 1) I suspect some of his language is overstated and 2) in any event, it does not necessarily apply beyond religious tests simpliciter, and thus does not provide conclusive authority to question the kinds of incidents I mention above and discuss at length in the paper.
Posted by: Paul Horwitz | Apr 20, 2006 5:54:41 PM
I can't wait to read the whole paper. I'm already in agreement with half of your thesis. See http://www.family.org/cforum/fnif/commentary/a0038249.cfm
No doubt you'll be able to convince me on the rest. We'll see!
Posted by: Bruce | Apr 20, 2006 8:04:08 PM
I can't wait to read the whole paper. I'm already in agreement with half of your thesis. See http://www.family.org/cforum/fnif/commentary/a0038249.cfm
No doubt you'll be able to convince me on the rest. We'll see!
Posted by: Bruce | Apr 20, 2006 8:04:58 PM
I can't wait to read the whole paper. I'm already in agreement with half of your thesis. See http://www.family.org/cforum/fnif/commentary/a0038249.cfm
No doubt you'll be able to convince me on the rest. We'll see!
Posted by: Bruce | Apr 20, 2006 8:07:38 PM
Professor Horwitz, at note 216 of your article you quote Oliver Ellsworth:
A religious test is an act to be done, or profession to be made, relating to religion (such as partaking of the Sacrament according to certain rites and forms, or declaring one’s belief of certain doctrines), for the purpose of determining whether his religious opinions are such that he is inadmissible to a public office.
This essay was published in the American Mercury and the Connecticut Courant, December 17, 1787 and reprinted two more times that month. How could it be more clear that Ellsworth did not view a Religious Test as a mere formal requirement pertaining only to oaths. The Religious Test Clause is written very plainly, and if the framers had meant religious "oaths" they would have said religious "oaths." Likewsie, Ellsworth is perfectly clear that Religious Tests are any acts or statements that are solicited "for the purpose of determining whether his religious opinions are such that he is inadmissible to a public office." How many times do the framers have to say what they meant?
Posted by: Andrew Hyman | Apr 20, 2006 10:19:22 PM
Bruce, triple thanks for that. I fear, based on the link you offered, that you may find the other half of my paper less congenial, but assure you it's offered in a spirit that is fundamentally respectful of the inclusion of religion in public life -- so much so, perhaps, that I prefer allowing for criticism of religion than simply banish the subject from the square altogether. I am also unsure I can buy the distinction you offer between religion as qualification and religion as disqualification, although in some sense the Becket Fund letter I cite and discuss takes a similar approach.
Andrew, thanks for the impassioned comment -- and for making it to note 216! You may be the first. The question "how many times the framers have to say what they meant," while a lovely broadside, I think overstates the matter. We have to aggregate a great deal of evidence of framers *and* ratifiers (including opponents of ratification) and come to our best available understanding of their shared language and shared expectations. It was really in that vein that I cited Ellsworth, because it seemed to me that his statement echoes those of others that, taken together, suggest that the framers understood the evil of test oaths to lie in the fact that they imposed formal requirements that, by demanding that the person being tested violate his own faith, acted as an absolute bar upon service, and with the most dire of penalties should they succumb to the test. It *still* seems to me, notwithstanding your plausible reading of Ellsworth, that the framers and ratifiers were concerned with the *formal* imposition of such tests, and would not have thought that the evil extended to the possibility that they might question or criticize a would-be office-holder's views, including his religious views, especially in a less formal context. Indeed, it seems to me that if one looks at the whole of Ellsworth's essay, it does indeed center precisely on such formal test acts. Happily, the good folks at the University of Chicago Press have made the essay available on line, so I'll give readers a chance to decide for themselves, although not before thanking you for a good tough question:
http://press-pubs.uchicago.edu/founders/documents/a6_3s14.html
Posted by: Paul Horwitz | Apr 20, 2006 11:27:14 PM
Thanks for your response, Paul, but I intensely disagree with your narrow reading of this vital Clause. Here's some more from Ellsworth at the link you provided, regarding the Religious Test Clause:
In our country every man has a right to worship God in that way which is most agreeable to his conscience. If he be a good and peaceable person he is liable to no penalties or incapacities on account of his religious sentiments....Civil government has no business to meddle with the private opinions of the people. If I demean myself as a good citizen, I am accountable, not to man, but to God, for the religious opinions which I embrace, and the manner in which I worship the supreme being....Legislatures have no right to set up an inquisition, and examine into the private opinions of men.
Senators and presidents are plainly forbidden to use religion as a litmus test for nominees. It's that simple.
Posted by: Andrew Hyman | Apr 20, 2006 11:45:05 PM
Andrew, I do want to add one limited point to your comment -- really, to your first comment. That is that it makes me appreciate that a number of words are at work in my paper, perhaps less so in the abstract: test, oath, and test-act. I would do well to make the commonalities and distinctions among these words clear, and will do so. I think, though, that the common tie between test acts that operated through the power of the oath (as most did) and other similar tests (say, requiring a person to attend a particular faith's church) is their formal and institutionalized nature; and it is this, I think, that puts test-oaths and the other variety of acts that Ellsworth discusses on one side of the line, and a broader suggestion that all 'tests,' generally put, or 'litmus tests,' are forbidden -- which I find harder to square with both history and policy. So, I'm afraid I still respectfully disagree with your take on the matter (as you may disagree with mine); but I do think your question has suggested the need to make sure I more carefully describe my terms in the paper, for which I thank you.
Posted by: Paul Horwitz | Apr 21, 2006 1:29:39 AM
Sorry to be so late in commenting, but I encourage you to do exactly what you indicate in your latest comment. I had a somewhat similar reaction to Andrew's (though certainly not as strong). I think I understand why you lean so hard in the direction of saying "test" means "oath." But I agree with Andrew that the quote from Ellsworth doesn't support your reading of it.
Suppose, for example, that the President, in meeting with each prospective nominee for the Supreme Court who is on his short list, hands the candidate a copy of the Apostle's Creed and asks, "Do you profess this faith? Because I will only nominate someone who answers 'yes.'" This is not asking for an oath, or a statement under oath, but it is the person who initiates the nomination process -- effectively the gatekeeper -- requiring a profession of faith in order for the prospective officeholder to qualify for nomination to the office.
I think that would violate the Religious Test Clause, notwithstanding the absence of an oath? Do you agree?
I've only made it to page 88 so far, and I have some other thoughts that I'd like to share once I develop them further.
In any event, thanks for a super paper. I learned a great deal and generally agree with your narrow reading of the clause. I think your argument would actually be stronger if you don't go as far out on the "oath" limb.
Posted by: ScurvyOaks | May 8, 2006 2:06:05 PM
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